In the AKJV David says the Lord will not leave Jesus' soul in hell. It does not say the Lord will not leave his soul in Paradise.
Psalm 16:8 I have set the Lord always before me: because he is at my right hand, I shall not be moved. 9 Therefore my heart is glad, and my glory rejoiceth: my flesh also shall rest in hope. 10 For thou wilt not leave my soul in hell; neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption.
HELL: H7585 Sheol, underworld, grave, hell, pit, wicked are sent there for punishment.
Acts 2:25 For David speaketh concerning him, I foresaw the Lord always before my face, for he is on my right hand, that I should not be moved: 26 therefore did my heart rejoice, and my tongue was glad; moreover also my flesh shall rest in hope: 27 because thou wilt not leave my soul in hell, neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption. 28 Thou hast made known to me the ways of life; thou shalt make me full of joy with thy countenance.
HELL: G86 Hades, the grave, death, the place of departed souls.
Hell, Sheol and Hades are NOT Paradise. Do you see Paradise in EITHER definition?
The NIV replaces most occurrences of the word HELL in the bible.
Psalm 16 NIV 8 I keep my eyes always on the Lord. With him at my right hand, I will not be shake 9 Therefore my heart is glad and my tongue rejoices; my body also will rest secure, 10 because you will not abandon me to the realm of the dead, nor will you let your faithful one see decay.
Acts 2 NIV 25 David said about him: “‘I saw the Lord always before me. Because he is at my right hand, I will not be shaken. 26 Therefore my heart is glad and my tongue rejoices; my body also will rest in hope, 27 because you will not abandon me to the realm of the dead, you will not let your holy one see decay. 28 You have made known to me the paths of life; you will fill me with joy in your presence.’
'Realm of the dead' is NOT a translation. It is a REPLACEMENT. The NIV REPLACES H7585 Sheol with 'realm of the dead' and REPLACES G86 Hades with 'realm of the dead'. Never use the NIV.
What do you think happens when a VERSION of the bible removes most occurrences of the word HELL? It weakens the definition of the word and leads to confusion and question as to the very existence of Hell and whether or not Jesus' soul even went to hell let alone suffered for 3 days and 3 nights in hell.
Jesus suffered. Is that just referring to his death on the cross? The thief on the cross suffered the same way.
Luke 24:46 and said unto them, Thus it is written, and thus it behoved Christ to suffer, and to rise from the dead the third day...
Acts 17:1 Now when they had passed through Amphipolis and Apollonia, they came to Thessalonica, where was a synagogue of the Jews: 2 and Paul, as his manner was, went in unto them, and three sabbath days reasoned with them out of the scriptures, 3 opening and alleging, that Christ must needs have suffered, and risen again from the dead; and that this Jesus, whom I preach unto you, is Christ.
Hebrews 2:9 But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man.
Notice what Hebrews said... suffering of DEATH. Jesus was alive on the cross when he suffered. Jesus was DEAD in HELL when he experienced the suffering of death.
People think a couple of hours on the cross is the only suffering Jesus endured. They think he went to Paradise, had a steak dinner and some Margaritas with friends. If the 'suffering' on the cross was the only suffering that qualified Jesus to be Savior then the thief on the cross is qualified based on the same suffering. And, they broke the thief's legs, too.
No. The suffering Jesus endured was the second death in hell for 3 days and 3 nights. Jesus endured 'our' suffering... the punishment for ALL who have sinned. THAT is the suffering Jesus endured. After he suffered that Jesus became the FIRST BEGOTTEN of the DEAD. Jesus did not rise from just the first death. Jesus rose from the SECOND death.
Revelation 1:5 ... from Jesus Christ, who is the faithful witness, and the first begotten of the dead...
The first begotten of the dead is not what we know of as death. The dead is those who died and went to hell... dead. There's a difference. Believers died and became more alive than ever. Unbelievers died and became dead in hell.
Revelation 2:11 He that hath an ear, let him hear what the Spirit saith unto the churches; He that overcometh shall not be hurt of the second death.
Strong's Concordance gives several definitions for Paradise. Here are two of them: G3857
1. the part of Hades which was thought by the later Jews to be the abode of the souls of pious until the resurrection: but some understand this to be a heavenly paradise
2. heaven
The 'later Jews' thought paradise was an abode of the souls until the resurrection. Jews are clueless about anything related to salvation or the scriptures. They deny Jesus is the Christ. The bible says they are liars and antichrists.
The only plausible definition for Paradise is Heaven.
Revelation 2:7 He that hath an ear, let him hear what the Spirit saith unto the churches; To him that overcometh will I give to eat of the tree of life, which is in the midst of the paradise of God.
The Tree of Life is in Heaven therefore, Paradise IS Heaven.
Need more proof?
2 Corinthians 12:1 It is not expedient for me doubtless to glory. I will come to visions and revelations of the Lord. 2 I knew a man in Christ above fourteen years ago, (whether in the body, I cannot tell; or whether out of the body, I cannot tell: God knoweth;) such an one caught up to the third heaven. 3 And I knew such a man, (whether in the body, or out of the body, I cannot tell: God knoweth;) 4 how that he was caught up into paradise, and heard unspeakable words, which it is not lawful for a man to utter.
Paul was caught up into Paradise aka the heaven.
Paradise is nothing more than another word for heaven.
The bible NEVER says Paradise 1) is a holding place for believers who have died, 2) WAS located DOWN in the earth, 3) was RELOCATED to heaven some time AFTER Jesus rose from the dead. All of these are absurd notions.
If you have trouble with Jesus telling the thief on the cross that he would be with him today in Paradise just remember Jesus was fully man. The only plausible explanation is:
1) Jesus had a body that stayed on the cross when he died.
2) Jesus had a soul that went to hell for 3 days.
3) Jesus had a spirit that went to heaven with the thief on the cross that day.
This is the only way Jesus could go to hell for 3 days and 3 nights AND be with the thief 'today' in Paradise.
Jesus' SOUL went to Hell. Jesus's SPIRIT went to Paradise.
05/03/2022 Update: I want to tweak what I said above with what Jesus told Nicodemus:
John 3:13 And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which IS IN heaven.
Jesus told Nicodemus the Son of man is IN heaven. That is how Jesus was able to tell the thief on the cross: Luke 23:43 And Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee, To day shalt thou be with me in paradise.
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